As a believer of monogamous AND stable relationship of SAME-SEX individuals, I believe that this we did exist in ancient times. However, due to the fact that in most ancient societies the general rule was that sexual activity was strongly encouraged to be limited to and concentrated on conceiving and bearing offspring in order to ensure the community’s survival and growth. In those times most people understood that male seed was actually for the SOLE purpose of furthering mankind. Back then men thought that women had NOTHING to do with the birth, except the incubation. So saving the male seed or semen in order to procreate was critically important in their minds. And under the provisions of the ancient Old Testament, it was considered ritually impure to participate in any act like homosexual anal intercourse that was a misuse or waste of male seed. Therefore living situations and the resulting sexual relations were restricted as much as possible to just opposite-sex unions that could produce children. So the idea of two same sex individuals living together as a couple would have been highly unlikely in that atmosphere. Nonetheless, I know of NO suggestion in the texts that relationships did OR did not exist between SAME-SEX ADULTS. However, ancient texts were written by men of the upper classes who usually had no interest in recording what was actually going on. THEREFORE I ASK, DOES THE BIBLE DEAL WITH MODERN DAY HOMOSEUALITY?
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